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originally posted by: Xcathdra
originally posted by: Asktheanimals
a reply to: Xcathdra
Fort Sumter was South Carolina land. Lincoln refused to relinquish it even though Federal forts in Florida had already been handed over to state authorities. He knew Southern firebrands would shell the fort eventually and give him the excuse for war but it still belonged to the state.
S. Carolina ceded most of their military installations, including Ft. Sumter, to the Federal government. In 1836 S. Carolina officially ceded any claims to the forts in question to the Federal government. So when they decided to attack Ft. Sumter, it was viewed as an insurrection, starting the civil war. Under the Constitution, the moment S. Carolina ceded the military forts, they lost any claim to reclaim them them. They were no longer state property per the Property Clause of the constitution. It required the consent of the S. Carolina government, and it was given when the forts were ceded.
originally posted by: Xcathdra
a reply to: yuppa
At the time and given the situation S. Carolina could not have charged the feds anything for the fort since its US government property. I think, if S. Caroline never fired on the fort, then the civil war would have been put off and another incident would have been the trigger of the civil war.
If I misunderstood your question please let me know.
originally posted by: Xcathdra
a reply to: yuppa
In that instance, where there was no civil war, then yes, I agree. However I would suspect that had the North and South became 2 separate nations at peace then there would not be any need for the North to maintain a presence in the Confederate States, a separate sovereign country. I could see the bases being turned over to the Southern states with some type of agreement allowing trade in addition to limited military access for refuel/resupply/repairs/etc.
originally posted by: Brotherman
a reply to: JimmyNeutr0n
Apparently there a few different statues of Abe Lincoln posing with bundles of sticks. I guess perhaps there is a significant meaning behind it as it isn't a feature only organic to the Lincoln Memorial in DC.
Earliest statue of Lincoln
Emancipation? statue
originally posted by: MeatHookReality
Fasces used in symbolic ways by our founding fathers are showing that they are Lictirs
for God only . In God this Country was founded for good or bad .
Secret societies burrow many symbols as Confraternity or as a new meaning all together.
The fasces seen in political architecture in America is a show of defiance to Rome & the existence of a new Atlantis founded by monotheistic triune God believing men .
Lincoln like all Presidents had his bad behaviors & good ones .
You are reading way to much into the fasces .
originally posted by: Xcathdra
There is a damn good reason why the US and its government, constitution etc are referred to as the great experiment.
originally posted by: JimmyNeutr0n
originally posted by: Brotherman
a reply to: JimmyNeutr0n
Apparently there a few different statues of Abe Lincoln posing with bundles of sticks. I guess perhaps there is a significant meaning behind it as it isn't a feature only organic to the Lincoln Memorial in DC.
Earliest statue of Lincoln
Emancipation? statue
The thing is, the word "Fascism" (opposed to Fasces) wasn't "coined" until world war 2, after the rise of Mussolini.
That's not to say the "idea" didn't exist before that. Ideas exist, through-out the ages. We can call it cherries today, and apples tomorrow. The fact that the "word" fascism did not exist in the 1776, the idea of what fascism meant did. Whether they called it "fascism" or some other fancy word. This is the corruption of linguistics and etymology over time.
originally posted by: MeatHookReality
Fasces used in symbolic ways by our founding fathers are showing that they are Lictirs
for God only . In God this Country was founded for good or bad .
Secret societies burrow many symbols as Confraternity or as a new meaning all together.
The fasces seen in political architecture in America is a show of defiance to Rome & the existence of a new Atlantis founded by monotheistic triune God believing men .
Lincoln like all Presidents had his bad behaviors & good ones .
You are reading way to much into the fasces .
If that were the case, why is America a secular nation and not a Christian? Granted, we can all argue on the merits of our American society and Christianity, but why is it not the official religion if what you say is the case?
What does Atlantis have to do with Christianity? Well, a lot, but I doubt you're privy to that esoteric information. If not, please elaborate.
You're speaking on semiotics as if it's been a main study of yours. Could you translate the Masonic symbol of the geometric square and compass?
I'll give you a few hints:
Square - Confines
Compass - Creation
Geometry - Language
I guess in a sense, I could agree with you that this nation was created with "God" in mind, but I don't think you grasp the complexity and depth of what you're saying.
Is math everlasting?
Is math unchanging?
Does nature use math to communicate?
Is math timeless?
Is math inevitable?
Is math bound?
Is math finite?
Absolute perfection outside (and inside) any confines we know.
Counting 1,2,3,4 is rudimentary, geometry is where things get interesting as you divulge into higher dimensions.
originally posted by: Xcathdra
a reply to: JimmyNeutr0n
Interesting read.. A few things stand out, at least to me.
1st - The US Constitution was never meant to apply to the states nor citizens of the states. It was designed for any employee of the Federal government. The intent was to have a strong central government that was extremely restricted in what it could do. States were suppose to run their affairs wall to wall, without federal government interference.
In 1833 this was pointed out and reiterated / reaffirmed by the US Supreme Court in Barron v. Mayor & City Council of Baltimore, 32 U.S. 243 (1833). The city took an action that screwed over Barron and his business. Barron sued, claiming his federal constitutional rights were violated. The Supreme Court ruled against Barron, stating that the US Constitution does not and did not apply to the citizens of the respective states. It only applied to the Federal Government and is employee's.
Primary Holding
The Bill of Rights applies only to the federal government rather than state or local governments, since there is no textual evidence to support a different view.
And it says that where? That its only for Government employees? Just because a few Judges make a ruling to save someone some money does not make it so. The Supreme court has constantly came up with Asinine interpretations to the Constitution to suit their wishes way more times than most can count. Especially about the 2nd Amendment where it clearly states SHALL NOT BE INFRINGED.
originally posted by: jaydog360
And it says that where? That its only for Government employees? Just because a few Judges make a ruling to save someone some money does not make it so. The Supreme court has constantly came up with Asinine interpretations to the Constitution to suit their wishes way more times than most can count. Especially about the 2nd Amendment where it clearly states SHALL NOT BE INFRINGED.
Primary Holding:
The Bill of Rights applies only to the federal government rather than state or local governments, since there is no textual evidence to support a different view.
The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people.
The provision in the Fifth Amendment to the Constitution of the United States declaring that private property shall not be taken for public use without just compensation is intended solely as a limitation on the exercise of power by the Government of the United States, and is not applicable to the legislation of the States.
The Constitution was ordained and established by the people of the United States for themselves, for their own government, and not for the government of individual States. Each State established a constitution for itself, and in that constitution provided such limitations and restrictions on the powers of its particular government as its judgment dictated. The people of the United States framed such a government for the United States as they supposed best adapted to their situation, and best calculated to promote their interests. The powers they conferred on this government were to be exercised by itself, and the limitations on power, if expressed in general terms, are naturally and necessarily applicable to the government created by the instrument. They are limitations of power granted in the instrument itself, not of distinct governments framed by different persons and for different purposes.
originally posted by: JimmyNeutr0n
So today I will present you all with how the American Republic fell in 1861 with the rise of a totalitarian government.
originally posted by: JimmyNeutr0n
I just had the most wild epiphany the last week, that completely changes my stance on this OP...
I don't know if anyones still following but gollllll-eeeeee
The "Republic" IS the fascism! Talk about plain sight, the majority of former and current republics all use the fasces symbol.
originally posted by: Solvedit
The symbol changed meaning.
BTW, can you tell us a little bit more about how you'd like to see the CSA run? What freedoms do you want to see which the USA doesn't have? Would we see self-determination for a larger portion of the population or just your majority?
originally posted by: Solvedit
What freedoms do you want to see which the USA doesn't have?
the separate and equal station to which the Laws of Nature and of Nature's God entitle them
that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights
When people are oppressed by their government, it is a natural right they enjoy to relieve themselves of the oppression, if they are strong enough, either by withdrawal from it, or by overthrowing it and substituting a government more acceptable.