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originally posted by: Grenade
a reply to: Phantom423
en.wikipedia.org...
"The notion of "fictitious force" arises in Einstein's general theory of relativity.[24][25] All fictitious forces are proportional to the mass of the object upon which they act, which is also true for gravity.[26][27] This led Albert Einstein to wonder whether gravity could be modeled as a fictitious force. He noted that a freefalling observer in a closed box would not be able to detect the force of gravity; hence, freefalling reference frames are equivalent to inertial reference frames (the equivalence principle). Developing this insight, Einstein formulated a theory with gravity as a fictitious force, and attributed the apparent acceleration due to gravity to the curvature of spacetime. This idea underlies Einstein's theory of general relativity. See the Eötvös experiment."
Einstein seems to agree with me at least. I'll take his word above your own. According to you he's an idiot as well?
originally posted by: Grenade
a reply to: Phantom423
Einstein says so.
I don't think you understand the argument, or the terminology.
originally posted by: Grenade
a reply to: Phantom423
General Relativity is underpinned and dependent on Gravity being modeled as a fictitious force in the form of the curvature of space-time. Researching the equivalence principle would be a good start if you're actually interested in understanding what this means.
originally posted by: Grenade
a reply to: Phantom423
You clearly don't understand what a fictitious force refers to or how it's factored into equations.
originally posted by: Grenade
a reply to: Phantom423
Gravity as a fictitious force within the theory of General Relativity is not some pseudo science, it's generally accepted despite your reluctance to understand basic physics. The current equations we use already define gravity as fictitious, no need for new ones.
Fictitious forces arise in classical mechanics and special relativity in all non-inertial frames. Inertial frames are privileged over non-inertial frames because they do not have physics whose causes are outside of the system, while non-inertial frames do. Fictitious forces, or physics whose cause is outside of the system, are no longer necessary in general relativity, since these physics are explained with the geodesics of spacetime: "The field of all possible space-time null geodesics or photon paths unifies the absolute local non-rotation standard throughout space-time.".[17]
originally posted by: Grenade
Either that or a detector with the mass of Jupiter, a neutron star and ten years of data.
originally posted by: Phantom423
You need to get your definition of "fictitious" as it applies to physics straight. Look it up.
And don't forget to post your new equations.
originally posted by: Grenade
a reply to: TerraLiga
Gravity is calculated, not directly measured or observed. Hence a Graviton is a theoretical particle. We can describe the effect on mass of space/time curvature but not directly measure the force itself. I really can't simplify it any further and if you continue to argue the point then you're a fool.