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"The odds of testing positive for COVID-19 were reduced in patients who received a flu shot by about 24 percent compared to those who didn't get vaccinated against influenza in the previous year.
That sounds notable, even if the overall effect is relatively small compared to the amount of protection an actual COVID-19 vaccine delivers.
Still, why does it happen at all? It might not actually reflect a mechanism of the flu vaccine, researchers say, so much as an effect of bias in the data, due to the behavior of people who choose to get vaccinated. But in truth we just don't know for sure."
originally posted by: blueman12
If it's a man-made virus, is there anyway to detect that under the microscope? If it's not similair to flu strains, what could cause that 24% correlation?
originally posted by: blueman12
If it's a man-made virus, is there anyway to detect that under the microscope? If it's not similair to flu strains, what could cause that 24% correlation?
originally posted by: blueman12
a reply to: tanstaafl
How? It's saying 24% of those who got vaccinated for influenza did not test positive for covid. Where in the article did you get the assumption that covid deaths are actually flu deaths???
originally posted by: blueman12
a reply to: tanstaafl
Ok.. I prefer scientific evidence.
But if you want to assume with your own logic, have fun!