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originally posted by: Barcs
a reply to: chr0naut
It might depend upon the weight you give to slim evidence, as opposed to the absence of evidence?
I'm curious as to what you mean by "slim evidence". Philosophical statements based on undefined (or assumed) premises are not evidence.
Definitely not 'the non-existence of God', that has no explanatory power in this situation at all. It avoids the question.
Who says that lack of belief in a god explains anything? It doesn't explain, just like lack of belief in fairies doesn't explain anything. Where is the explanatory power in disbelieving anything that doesn't have evidence to support it? Atheism rejects belief in god, plain and simple. It doesn't need evidence, it's just the logical default, like lack of belief in fairies. You don't need evidence that proves fairies don't exist. You can rule it out because there is no evidence that suggests they DO. Existence of anything is a positive assertion, which means burden of proof is on the person who made the claim that something exists.
God has no explanatory power without invoking numerous assumptions as well, it's just a simple cop out explanation based on the fact that we don't know the answer to everything, so people invoke some magical all powerful all encompassing being that can break the laws of physics and exists outside of spacetime itself.
By definition atheism MUST have NO evidence of the existence of God to be valid. It must hold that the existence of everything is not even slightly, possibly, evidential of the existence of God.
Um, no. There is nothing it MUST have, aside from lack of belief in god. It is not a belief system, nor even a belief, it is rejection of somebody else's claim / belief due to lack of evidence. The existence of everything is evidence that everything exists. Not for god or materialism. You need to be way more specific than that if you wish to suggest there is any evidence of god.
One highly probable option for the current existence of everything is an 'uncaused first cause'. What this is, we don't know (but it is one of the definitions of God, that applies only to God and nothing else concievable). So maybe the existence of God is evidenced on a massive scale but we aren't defining it that way?
Highly probable? How could you possibly know that? You are appealing to personal belief here. I see it as much more probable that the universe functions in a cyclical fashion, rather than a linear fashion.
Either way, the atheist case is un-evidenced - totally. The slightest bit of evidence for the existence of God negates atheism.
Until that alleged evidence has been objectively proven, atheism remains the logical default.
originally posted by: TzarChasm
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: TzarChasm
i was interested to see chr0nauts take on ignosticism/igtheism but it would seem he has gotten bored and wandered off.
Sorry, life & stuff. I'm sure you know the drill.
The etymology of ignosticism is, firstly, a bastardized mix of Latin & Greek - a semantic impurity.
The Latin "ig" means, simply, 'not'. The Greek "gnosis" means 'to know'. The Latin "ism" refers to a; 'system, doctrine or practice'. So, my take on the definition of the word would be 'the system of not knowing' (which is different to the definition you supplied in the link, in a previous post). Ignosticism could be considered to be etymologically similar to agnosticism.
Similarly, igtheism is; 'the system of no god/s' (another mangling of roots as "theos" is Greek for 'god'!) and is very similar to atheism in an etymological sense.
However, igtheism and ignosticism have been defined as implying that athesim, theism and agnosticism all hang their definitions upon an assumed understanding of what "god" might be. Since there is no robust agreed definition of 'god', it is pointless to try and argue any case dependent upon the definition of 'god'. One must first define 'god' fully, if one cannot, then igtheism and/or ignosticism must be the default position.
However, to counter that, one might suggest that we DO have unique definitions that can only be applied to God or gods and therefore the 'ig' arguments are semantic pedantries.
So, it's a free-for-all. Pick your favourite flavour and run with that.
Of course there are protocols for defining things. Among these is the substantiation of whatever is being defined. In other words falsifiable data from repeatable experiments, that is if you expect the definition to have any practical application. Anyone suggesting that igtheism as an argument is pedantic clearly doesn't appreciate the importance of defining something before you attempt to confirm its existence. There are some doors you don't want to knock on without knowing what's behind them.
originally posted by: chr0naut
"Because atheism doesn't need evidence, it is the default position", "because atheism doesn't need evidence", "because... "
Honestly, you cannot really hang your intellectual case upon a scientific requirement of hard objective evidence and then say the default position for such a mindset does not need evidence?
There is no requirement for falsifiable data in semantic definitions
originally posted by: Barcs
originally posted by: chr0naut
"Because atheism doesn't need evidence, it is the default position", "because atheism doesn't need evidence", "because... "
Honestly, you cannot really hang your intellectual case upon a scientific requirement of hard objective evidence and then say the default position for such a mindset does not need evidence?
You pseudo philosophy guys always do this. You ignore the vast majority of what is posted to nitpick a single statement, ignoring any counterpoints and issues presented about your argument. This is not true philosophy. Logical flaws need to be addressed. Burden of proof needs to be followed. Fallacies need to be avoided.
I am not claiming atheism is proven or that the logical default is automatically correct. You ARE arguing that there is evidence for god and logical reasoning that holds valid in favor of a god. I don't post here to defend atheism or attack creationism, I post here to defend science and rationality. You are simply not being rational here.
You are ignoring burden of proof (a key logical tenant in philosophy) and making a special case for atheism, when it's no different than rejecting the numerous other things that have no evidence.
Unicorns, flying crocodiles, fairies, intestinal gnomes, etc fall into this category. It is just as logical to reject those as it is to reject god, but you guys aren't arguing that A-uncornists, a-flyingcrocodists, a-fairists, and a-gnomists, need to prove those things don't exist (something that's impossible without complete knowledge of the universe) in order to logically reject that belief.
If you wish to assert that something DOES exist, you need objective evidence of such. It is not illogical to reject something that has no evidence. Trying to flip the script and claim that atheism needs evidence is ignoring basic logic. If you wish to prove atheism wrong, all you need is evidence for god. Unfortunately you have none. You have "what if" statements very loosely based on philosophy and attacks on atheism that don't hold merit.
Not unless you want to actually prove the statements. All of those philosophical arguments for god say is, "IF my definition of god is right, then god exists". You can speculate on what ifs as much as your heart desires, but it's not proof, nor objective evidence. Logical reasoning only proves things, if the premise is provable.
There is no requirement for falsifiable data in semantic definitions
originally posted by: Noinden
a reply to: chr0naut
It all boils down to the fact, you can not show evidence for your God to exist, over say none, or my ALL gods. End of story. Deities are out side the purview or interest of science.
originally posted by: chr0naut
Science is based upon testing theories with objective evidence. Atheism says that there is no evidence of the existence of God. Science cannot test anything if there is an absence of evidence. Hence there can be nothing scientific about atheism in its present state. There may be an absence of evidence. One may draw conclusions about an absence of evidence but there is nothing scientific about such conclusions. Atheism, founded as it is on an absence of evidence, has no foundation in science. Until objective evidence exists that God does not exist, atheism has no scientific basis, calling it such is a fallacy.
"What can be asserted without evidence can be dismissed without evidence."
I am being rational. I am using the tools of logic and reason. You just said it yourself, where you said that I am "arguing that there is evidence for god and logical reasoning that holds valid in favor of a god". You contradict yourself in the same paragraph and accuse me of not being rational? Posting that you are "defending science and rationality" while rejecting the same when offered from elsewhere (from some of the greatest minds in history - I just quoted them) is contradictory and not a rational counter agrument.
See that, you say i'm "ignoring a burden of proof" and in the same sentence you say there is "no evidence". No evidence = no proof. If there is "no proof", what "no proof" might I be I ignoring?
Perhaps I have a wrong idea of proof or evidence because it appears you have contradicted yourself again.
"Unicorns, flying crocodiles, fairies, intestinal gnomes (goes to show that if you can think of it, it is a 'thing' on the internet).
If only a single definition has validity, it stands as a unique definition that would indicate the likelihood that God exists (stronger than an unevidenced case). Therefore, to fix your quote, "If ANY definition of God is right, then God must exist (in definition)". There are many definitions, uniquely of God (i.e: that cannot be applied to anything else), that exist - unarguably.
The argument that something cannot exist unless we know absolutely everything about it is stupid because we do not have absolute knowledge.
Atheism is the hideout of a weak mind, it has no basis in reason (and rejects reasonable arguments because they are just thinking, not objective evidence) it has no basis in science as it is unevidenced.
originally posted by: Barcs
We are in agreement here. I did not say that atheism is scientific, it is the logical rejection of a claim that has no objective supporting evidence.
originally posted by: chr0naut
Science is based upon testing theories with objective evidence. Atheism says that there is no evidence of the existence of God. Science cannot test anything if there is an absence of evidence. Hence there can be nothing scientific about atheism in its present state. There may be an absence of evidence. One may draw conclusions about an absence of evidence but there is nothing scientific about such conclusions. Atheism, founded as it is on an absence of evidence, has no foundation in science. Until objective evidence exists that God does not exist, atheism has no scientific basis, calling it such is a fallacy.
Keep in mind, however, that just because atheism is not scientific, does not somehow give credibility to the opposing position. If you are arguing for a creator, mentioning atheism is pointless because theism is also completely unscientific. There is no requirement that the opposing position of an illogical one needs evidence. It is impossible to prove non existence of anything as I've already gone over.
What you are saying is the same as saying that non belief in fairies is unscientific. Well sure, but that doesn't mean they exist or that believing in them is logical. Atheism remains the logical default until evidence is discovered that points to god. Plain and simple.
This same exact thing applies to your philosophical arguments for god.
"What can be asserted without evidence can be dismissed without evidence."
I thought I already addressed this in detail. Without evidence for the existence of god, the position can be dismissed. Atheists are not asserting their position as fact, they are rejecting yours.
It is not rational or logical to flip the burden of proof to the folks that reject your viewpoint when you cannot logically demonstrate your own position.
It is a red herring in the discussion, used to distract away from the fact that your position is extremely flimsy.
Are you not following the conversation? The burden of proof is on YOU, because you are arguing for the POSITIVE CLAIM OF EXISTENCE of a creator or god. There is a clear lack of evidence for your position. It is not illogical to reject that which has no evidence of existence. Atheism does not assert the existence of anything and this is where your argument breaks down.
You just completely proved my point. It relies on "what if". I don't care what if, I care what IS.
IF any definition of god is accurate, and the logical construction of the statements are accurate and based on fact then, sure, god exists. But we can't determine whether any definition is valid without objective evidence to study.
But this isn't the argument. The argument is that it is logical to reject things that have zero evidence to support their existence as per burden of proof.
You are appealing to extreme positions here, because we know literally NOTHING about a god or creator. This may change one day if evidence is discovered.
originally posted by: Barcs
And FYI, Pierre Teilhard de Chardin was not an evolutionary biologist. He worked in paleontology and geology (with no real credentials in any of those). He was a philosopher and Jesuit priest.
Richard Dawkins has also been called an Evolutionary Biologist and is similarly uncredentialled for the role.
Interestingly, Julian Huxley, the founder of the Modern Evolutionery Synthesis, wrote the preface for Teilhard de Chardin's book "The Phenomenon of Man" where he outlined Teilhard de Chardin's impressive credentials but also the debt that the subject of Evolutionary Biology owed to Teilhard de Chardin's philosophy and work in the field.
Teilhard de Chardin had dual Baccalaureates of Philosophy and Mathematics, a Licentiate (equivalent to a modern PhD) in Literature, he studied Theology, Geology and Palentology at Hastings, he completed his Theology studies there, being ordained as a Priest but continued his studies of Geology and Palentology under Macellian Boule at the Institute of Human Palentology at the Museum of Natural History in Paris.
His studies were interrupted by the First Word War where he recieved a Military Medal and was made an Officer of the Legion of Honour.
He had a Doctorate in Geology at the Sorbonne and simultaneously was Professor of Geology at the Catholic Institute of Paris. He then was appointed Director of the Laboratory of Advanced Studies in Geology and Palentology in Paris.
He was proposed being given a Professorship to the College de France but declined it in compliance with an order not to accept it by the Church who at the time also rejected and tried to censure many of his writings.
He was a Membre de L'Institut, a member of the Academie des Sciences and Director of Research at the Center National de la Recherech Scientifique.
He moved to New York where he was employed at the Wenner-Gren Foundation were he played an important role in framing their anthropological policy and organizing international symposia.
He was not an Evolutionary Biologist by credential. He was a polymth and highly credentialled in Geology, Literature, Palentology. He was offered the pinnacle scientific accolade that existed at the time, a Professorship to the College de France.
Very few of todays scientist are as credentialled or as accomplished as he was.
originally posted by: Noinden
a reply to: chr0naut
There is no rational weakness in atheism. That is absurd and I say this as a polytheist. Your biaeses are peaking out and influencing your objectivity here.
Also who says your Deity is an absolute?
originally posted by: chr0naut
As atheism has no supporting evidence, either, it is no more 'logical' than its opposite.
You are wrong. It IS possible to prove that things which are physical and/or logical impossibilities, cannot exist. To be the logical default, Atheism would need to prove that God CANNOT exist, it falls short of that.
Atheism is not the default on grounds of reason or logic.
So you are suggesting that Atheists assert that their position is not fact?
That Atheists oppose Theists because they don't like Theists or their beliefs is not a reasonable, rational or logical refutation. It is prejudice, pure and simple.
This works both ways. As I was not promoting the opposing hypothesis (Theism), it is entirely rational and logical of me to flip Atheist argument, pointing out that Atheist arguments against Theism can also be reasonably applied against Atheism itself. This indicates the weakness of the use of Atheist arguments for supporting an Atheist case by opposition.
I used the word "if" because I was re-stating your hypothetical statement. I'll re-state my revision of your quote: ""If ANY definition of God is right, then God must exist (in definition)". As you see, were were talking about the semantic meaning and usefulness of the concept of a "definition". What I said does not "prove your point" that it is all based upon "if's", because, absolutely, those definitions referred to, do exist.
As Atheism has no evidence of "what IS" and "doesn't assert the existence of anything", you can hardly state that an Atheist view gives a rats' ar$e about "what IS".Saying so is empty rhetoric, full of emotion but devoid of reason or logic. Atheism is based upon what ISN't.
You are confusing a 'definition' of an attribute applied to a God concept as being equivalent to the existence of God. The definitions do objectively exist as definitions. Such definitions provide no support for Atheism at all but may possibly lend support to Theism.
It IS illogical to think that a similarly un-evidenced proposition is, therefore, somehow better.
As I have previously suggested, there may be circumstantial evidence for the existence of God. Atheism, however, MUST have no evidence, not even slight, subjective or circumstatial evidence of the existence of God, to stand.
Tell me, what form of evidence would prove the existence of God to you?
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: TzarChasm
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: TzarChasm
i was interested to see chr0nauts take on ignosticism/igtheism but it would seem he has gotten bored and wandered off.
Sorry, life & stuff. I'm sure you know the drill.
The etymology of ignosticism is, firstly, a bastardized mix of Latin & Greek - a semantic impurity.
The Latin "ig" means, simply, 'not'. The Greek "gnosis" means 'to know'. The Latin "ism" refers to a; 'system, doctrine or practice'. So, my take on the definition of the word would be 'the system of not knowing' (which is different to the definition you supplied in the link, in a previous post). Ignosticism could be considered to be etymologically similar to agnosticism.
Similarly, igtheism is; 'the system of no god/s' (another mangling of roots as "theos" is Greek for 'god'!) and is very similar to atheism in an etymological sense.
However, igtheism and ignosticism have been defined as implying that athesim, theism and agnosticism all hang their definitions upon an assumed understanding of what "god" might be. Since there is no robust agreed definition of 'god', it is pointless to try and argue any case dependent upon the definition of 'god'. One must first define 'god' fully, if one cannot, then igtheism and/or ignosticism must be the default position.
However, to counter that, one might suggest that we DO have unique definitions that can only be applied to God or gods and therefore the 'ig' arguments are semantic pedantries.
So, it's a free-for-all. Pick your favourite flavour and run with that.
Of course there are protocols for defining things. Among these is the substantiation of whatever is being defined. In other words falsifiable data from repeatable experiments, that is if you expect the definition to have any practical application. Anyone suggesting that igtheism as an argument is pedantic clearly doesn't appreciate the importance of defining something before you attempt to confirm its existence. There are some doors you don't want to knock on without knowing what's behind them.
There is no requirement for falsifiable data in semantic definitions. Semantics can encompass absolutes (understood by all to be absolutes). One may define semantic concepts such as infinity or nothingness which are objective absolutes and cannot 'falsify' in the sense that Popper used to differentiate science from pseudoscience.
One could argue that, although we cannot falsify them, that they are meaningless or impractical. They are vital in our understanding of things.
So I would argue that there are attributes of God, which can only apply to God and are understood as having the same definitions to all who may consider them. The definitions are clear, nearly universal and specific. The fact that you can't measure gas pressure with an inch ruler alone does not mean it is an unreal concept (or if you consider it, a ruler is particularly useless in measuring the length of zero or infinity. It isn't the tool for the job - Mathematics and Philosophy are).