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a reply to: ScientificRailgun
TextIt's very simple. If you own a business that serves the PUBLIC, you must serve ALL members of the public. And yes, you have the right to refuse service to anyone, so long as the reason for refusal is NOT that the person belongs to a protected group. If a customer is acting like a general arseface and you refuse to serve them. That's your right. If a customer is gay, disabled, black, catholic, etc, and you refuse to serve them for THAT reason, that's illegal. It's really quite simple. If your business serves the public, you can't discriminate.
originally posted by: CrawlingChaos
a reply to: Annee
I'm afraid we disagree.. It's not a public business ; It's a private business that caters to the public. Simply opening a business does not make you a public institution, nor publicly owned. If I walk into a sporting goods store, to buy a baseball bat ; I express I will not be hitting baseballs but people... Are you still soo adamant that you must sell me this bat ? I bet you wouldn't have this same resolve.
And that's fine. This is not an absolute argument, an absolute answer will not suffice I'm afraid.
originally posted by: CrawlingChaos
a reply to: Krazysh0t
It's not a red herring at all. Like I stated earlier, are they refusing service to anyone that's gay ? Or simply not participating in the event or ceremony. I'm bombarded with absolutes as arguments, so I figured these are ways that might be understood.
I personally, don't feel this is absolutely this, or absolutely that type of discussion.
If you commit the crime, then you must pay the fine. It is truly that simple.
Do they have a state business license? Do you use public access to get to their business? Do they personally own the property their "brick & mortar" sits on?
Participation in the wedding wasn't required of them.
originally posted by: CrawlingChaos
a reply to: Krazysh0t
Participation in the wedding wasn't required of them.
So they did not have to provide the cake, or did they ? If they did have to provide it, then it is participation. The law looks upon material support, as participation. So yes, they were forced to ; Or atleast the act of force was applied.
originally posted by: CrawlingChaos
a reply to: Annee
I'm sorry Annee.. But merely opening a business does not make you a public entity.
originally posted by: timequake
Actually, it does no such thing. It empowers the federal government to to deter state discrimination. It has no effect on private discrimination.
Slaves were compensated with room and board. Some were even allowed some pay that could then be applied to buying their freedom. Was this compensation adequate? No. The same can be applied--even if on a different level-- in this case. Who is the government to say what compensation among private actors is adequate?
It is also a clear violation of the First Amendment. The Government is coercing a private entity to act against it's personal and religious beliefs.
originally posted by: timequake
Being required to have a license does not make one a public/state actor anymore than having a driver's license makes us agents of the state.
You are bound by state law. You probably get tax breaks. You ever owned a small business? There are rules you are required to follow.
You ever get a "nasty gram" from the Highway Patrol with a picture of your out of state license plate and a 2 page letter about how you're breaking the law and stealing from your state of residence?
Providing the cake is just that providing a cake.
Ok you got me there. That isn't in the Constitution. That is the Civil Rights Act of 1964 that I am referring to.
That's not compensation. That is just taking care of your property so you don't have to buy more of it.
Businesses aren't supposed to HAVE religious beliefs and until the Hobby Lobby case they never did. Businesses also don't have "personal" beliefs either. In any case, it isn't a violation of the First Amendment.
originally posted by: CrawlingChaos
a reply to: Annee
I'm sorry Annee.. But merely opening a business does not make you a public entity.