It looks like you're using an Ad Blocker.
Please white-list or disable AboveTopSecret.com in your ad-blocking tool.
Thank you.
Some features of ATS will be disabled while you continue to use an ad-blocker.
originally posted by: Arbitrageur
If you're asserting they really had a circular assumption in their calculations I'd be interested in seeing the details of that, but from your vague description it's hard to confirm if that's the case. Maybe they didn't do what you expected them to do but they did what they intended to do. Some experiments test relativity and some don't. If the experiment is testing relativity it should pre-calculate the expected results if relativity is right and what results to expect if some other model is correct instead, or if relativity is wrong. On the other hand, if the experiment isn't testing relativity, it's not unreasonable to make assumptions that relativity is correct based on other experimental results. As long as those assumptions are clearly stated I don't see it as circular or flawed science, even if relativity turns out to be wrong which it probably is in some broader case like Newton's model turned out to be wrong in the broader case.
originally posted by: delbertlarson
It turned out that they had assumed the usual special relativity relations to derive the angles rather than measuring them. So it was at that time that I really began to question how many circular arguments might be around right now.
That's quite an ordeal, but I guess politics isn't just in politics, it's rampant in corporations, and per to your experience, also in laboratories.
So the way things work right now is really not much further along that when it was with Galileo from the point of view of accepting new ideas. At least we no longer use the rack. We just make it very hard for people with different ideas to find work "in science".
originally posted by: greenreflections
How your interpretations explain Big Bang event?
Thanks
originally posted by: moebius
a reply to: delbertlarson
I am not an expert, but from my understanding QED is considered incomplete due to divergences at high energies. It is seen as a low-energy approximation.
Renormalization is done by splitting finite from divergent parts and transforming the divergent parts into renormalization coefficients for mass, charge (making them divergent with increasing energies). To get physical/finite results you replace mass, charge with values you have measured (at some energy).
I'm not making a careful observation here based on any research, just a casual observation, than I recall reading numerous articles and papers explicitly stating the experiment or observation was a test of special or general relativity, so for those it was pretty obvious that's what it was. For other works that don't make any such claims, you're probably right that many start with the assumption that relativity is correct. I think most physicists recognize all of our models are seriously flawed in the highest energy realm, and thus know in that realm we need better models. But in lower energy realms where the models work if they are assumed to be correct for other work, I don't see a serious problem with that even if as you say, the assumptions are flawed in a more serious way than just at ultra high energies, because if I thought I could prove that, I think I could get a Nobel prize for doing so, but I don't think I can prove it.
originally posted by: delbertlarson
But of course they assumed relativity is correct! I think any scientist working in the past 80 years or so does! So I didn't in any way mean they were frauds...
It gets harder and harder to see which experiments really do support the theory, and which are simply using it.
Length contraction is difficult to prove. We can get protons and other tiny things to relativistic speeds, but their dimensions are too small and too difficult to measure to give us clear results on length contraction. For larger objects which would have an easier to measure length contraction, we can't seem to get those to a significant percentage of the speed of light.
In this case, length contraction, it is something that pretty much the entire physics community believes is fully proven. But I maintain it is not.
originally posted by: delbertlarson
a reply to: joelr
If we have a point-like electron with charge e, it will have an infinite, positive, self energy from that charge by the classical arguments. If we now let e run to infinity that would naively appear (at least to me) that we have infinity squared, not a cancellation. How does QED refute that logic?
And further, is QED saying we now have negative infinite energies in order to cancel out the positive ones? For pre-QED physics, total energy is always a positive quantity in any physical system I know of. Of course, in bound states the total energy is less than the total energy of the constituents, but I don't obviously see what is bound here if we are considering a single particle.
I have heard that QED is the most accurate theory ever. My question really is what experiments prove that, and how many free parameters are being determined as a result of those experiments. I believe the claim comes from truly impressive work, both theoretically and experimentally, on g-2 experiments. I understand that such experiments and theory agree to many, many decimal places. But if the bare mass is set via renormalization through these experiments, then these experiments are really just extremely accurate determinations of the physical bare mass constants. That is still excellent and important science, but it doesn't address my question. And charge gets set via renormalization too. So that should allow a perfect match to the Lamb shift through a determination of bare charge, once the bare masses were calculated by g-2. So next we get to high energy scattering and possibly decay processes, and I don't believe we get all that many 9's of accuracy in those measurements. The scattering measurements will require excellent knowledge of energies and momenta both before and after the events, while the decay processes rely on assumptions of internal structure. So that is what I meant by the question.
originally posted by: Arbitrageur
a reply to: greenreflections
Yes the muon time dilation is well known but unfortunately your source contradicts Einstein's statement that it's momentum that increases with velocity, not mass. I made a thread about that where I agreed with Einstein that we shouldn't be discussing mass increase as your source does. Unfortunately Feynman and some others popularized that idea about mass increase, but it doesn't seem right.
You're right you can say "as if it was heavier (or more massive)", but according to Einstein it's better to say it takes more force to accelerate it because it has more momentum, and he apparently preferred the concept of "relativistic mass" not be taught.
originally posted by: dragonridr
But as you get closer it's relativistic mass increases, basically meaning it takes more force to move thr object just as if the object were heavier.
Before Einstein's relativity, many thought that time was absolute, and relativity was a big upset to the old way of thinking when Einstein said time isn't absolute, it depends on where you are and how fast you're moving relative to other objects or something along those lines.
originally posted by: Krahzeef_Ukhar
Are there different forms of time?
I'll share it here instead if you don't mind. Looks like your idea has a lot in common with Rupert Sheldrake's ideas, so I'll just re-post the comments made by the editor of a prominent scientific journal (Nature) regarding those:
originally posted by: Peeple
You smarty pants, probably gave up on the Skunk Works, that's why I would like to formally invite you to share your opinion here.
...Sheldrake's book is a splendid illustration of the widespread public misconception of what science is about. In reality, Sheldrake's argument is in no sense a scientific argument but is an exercise in pseudo-science... Many readers will be left with the impression that Sheldrake has succeeded in finding a place for magic within scientific discussion – and this, indeed, may have been a part of the objective of writing such a book.
Think of it on a "per particle" basis, that's what the scientists are talking about. Gravity is something like a trillion trillion trillion times weaker than the electric field, though that's not an exact calculation, it's a rough comparison.
originally posted by: CJCrawley
Why do physicists, on every damn science documentary I watch, keep banging on about how weak gravity is compared to the other forces? And use the same twee example of picking up a paper clip with a fridge magnet while announcing that this is defying the gravitational pull of the whole Earth?
This is a partial misunderstanding on your part. Gravity follows the inverse square law. So do electric fields, and magnetic fields would too if we had magnetic monopoles, so they would follow the same proximity effect as gravity. Since we don't have magnetic monopoles (quasi-particles have been compared to magnetic monopoles, but they are not true monopoles), the dipole properties of magnets cause them to follow an inverse cube rather than inverse-square law, so it still changes strength with proximity but at a different rate than gravity.
I'm not a physicist (most people aren't) but a lot of lay people are clued up now about gravity's strength being directly proportional to proximity and mass; this does not appear to be the case for the other forces which are the strength they are, regardless of external factors.
originally posted by: Arbitrageur
Before Einstein's relativity, many thought that time was absolute, and relativity was a big upset to the old way of thinking when Einstein said time isn't absolute, it depends on where you are and how fast you're moving relative to other objects or something along those lines.
originally posted by: Krahzeef_Ukhar
Are there different forms of time?
It sounds like you might be saying this proposal is wrong, and maybe it is, it's only a speculative idea, not a proven theory. We really can't say which of the speculative ideas about the earliest part of the big bang are right at this point until we have better models; they're all speculative.
In theoretical physics, the Hartle–Hawking state, named after James Hartle and Stephen Hawking, is a proposal concerning the state of the universe prior to the Planck epoch.
Hartle and Hawking suggest that if we could travel backward in time toward the beginning of the universe, we would note that quite near what might have otherwise been the beginning, time gives way to space such that at first there is only space and no time. Beginnings are entities that have to do with time; because time did not exist before the Big Bang, the concept of a beginning of the universe is meaningless. According to the Hartle–Hawking proposal, the universe has no origin as we would understand it: the universe was a singularity in both space and time, pre-Big Bang. Thus, the Hartle–Hawking state universe has no beginning, but it is not the steady state universe of Hoyle; it simply has no initial boundaries in time nor space.