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Who says we would see it? If the beam was narrow enough and the air was clear enough and the beam wasn't overly bright, you might not see it.
originally posted by: coomba98
If you are 2km behind the light how come we would still see it?
originally posted by: Arbitrageur
Yes and even that is simplified to the point it's "wrong", since the complete and correct equation might reduce book sales.
originally posted by: Poon
So the only one he included was E = mc squared.
originally posted by: Arbitrageur
What is at the event horizon for another massive object to pull on? Nothing. If there's nothing there then there's nothing there to distort with tidal forces. This shouldn't be a hard concept.
originally posted by: greenreflections
I just said it in my post above. Event horizon will show tidal elongation. Since black holes never been observed as lone objects, it is hard for me to present experimental evidence.
Do you think when two black holes approach they are not affected by effects of gravity from each other? And if they do, what makes you think event horizons of both will show no sign of it?
If you want to cite a quote from my explanation in the OP of the thread you're referring to and describe what is unclear about that specific quote, maybe I could try to clarify that type of query. I think I already explained it clearly so I can't try to clarify it further until I know what part of the explanation is giving you trouble. In fact if you read the explanation, the way your question is phrased indicates an absolutely dismal level of reading comprehension. Perhaps you didn't even read the explanation and are asking me to explain something I've already explained? In that case why not read the explanation I already linked to?
originally posted by: greenreflections
It is simplified but not wrong. Are you anti Einstein personality?
There's a way to resolve this. Tidal forces can be calculated mathematically, so, just calculate them. You can't calculate any tidal forces if there's nothing at the event horizon. If you would like to illustrate otherwise by showing your calculations that would be interesting, but of course we both know you can't.
originally posted by: greenreflections
I tend to think of event horizon as a surface of black hole. It has to experience some how a pull from another object (gravitationally affected) according to GR. Meaning imo that outer edge of the surface will start falling into gravity affected area, experience tidal forces in other words.
originally posted by: KrzYma
a reply to: Arbitrageur
Your youtube video isn't intended to be a scientific resource so it just seems silly to argue against science by posting youtube videos like that.
haha... NO!!!
this video is not from me or for me to explain how it is
it's just some random video from the net..
actually it is the opposite of what you think..
what it shows is how MS science works !
bunch of crack heads explaining # they have no idea off
they are just parroting some text from the books and maybe think they understand it
I'm talking about how it is presented to the common population dude !
I know you know a lot about the common theory, no doubt, but every time I put some arguments that are "unthinkable" for MS theory, I get ignored or discriminated or.. yeah.. ignored !!
What I want is that science goes back to the experiments made before theory and look at the outcome of those experiments from today's pov
and the black hole problem is BS because there is none... no black holes not problem
.
which can also be expressed as 0.0000041x10^12 M ⊙ for the calculation below
M_bh of 4.1x10^6 M ⊙
rest is paraphrased:
We measure...
I'm not sure if I understand your question, but I'll give it a shot. In two of the most recent Bell tests, the "particles" tested were photons. We know some things about photons such as that they always travel at the speed of light, and they have momentum. Let's look at an example test, if you have a different test to discuss post a link to it:
originally posted by: masterp
Here is my question: in Bell's theorem, why do we assume that if local variables existed, the measurements of the particles should be linearly correlated to the angle the detectors are arranged at?
This question is fundamental to Quantum Mechanics and I cannot find an answer online. I've asked many physicists online (you know, the ask-a-physicist pages) and never got an answer.
I think that would be a good guess, but we can't see the entire milky way and we have a hard time "seeing" black holes, unless they are either "feeding" or unless there is a bright object behind them which they "magnify" via gravitational lensing. So if they can't all be observed reliably then you're guessing this based on models of evolution of the universe, galaxy formation, etc and maybe your models don't predict many other supermassive black holes besides the one at the center. Maybe it's improbable but not statistically impossible, for something like that to be hiding in a part of the galaxy we can't see.
originally posted by: ImaFungi
the percentage you answered with appears small, is it correct that, considering supermassive blackhole as a single object (a single star is a single object, a single planet single object, single asteroid etc.) that it is the most massive single object in/of the milky way
I don't follow the question exactly but my belief based on some limited evidence is that early galaxies tended to be somewhat spherical or at least radially symmetrical in shape, and they probably had black holes at their centers. The more modern disc-shaped galaxies like ours, and Andromeda I believe are the result of collisions from these earlier spherical shaped galaxies, so I suspect the disc shape is a result of the collision, not of the black hole.
So is it thought, that the center black hole, is the largest concentrated mass, the largest concentrated source of gravity, and it is the central massive black holes' (it is a bit strange referring to the most massive object as a hole, but I do get it) existence which contains the shape of the milky way galaxy... to the degree prior to the need of dark matter?
If the black hole was more massive, it wouldn't explain the observed rotation.
I presume the black hole would have to be many more percentages more massive for there to not be needed dark matter theory, but even still, if the black hole was made incrementally more massive for sake of these theoretical checks and balances, is it thought that the spiral rotations and outer stars would 'make sense'?
There are some pretty tight orbits already around the supermassive black hole, but yes of course if it was even more massive those orbits would be tighter.
But if the central black hole mass was incrementally increased, for our sake of understanding the threshold of needing dark matter for theory, until dark matter was not needed, the milky way I presume would appear different, I presume the spiral would be tighter, and the orbits of the stars around the center would incrementally tighten?
As I said I think the geometry of disk galaxies is likely the result of past galactic collisions. For a detailed answer to your question you should really read the paper I cited for the Milky Way mass, which talks about how the mass is distributed and how the mass was measured.
There is a great deal of percentage left, how does that percentage; stars, planets, asteroids, comets, dust, gas, elements, sub atomic, etc. contribute to the geometry of the milky ways total gravity?
If there was no dark matter in theory (theory, meaning, a theoretical nature, according to all laws of nature we know of questioning the 1, questionable theory, being discussed), in theory a central black hole of mass x, and a quantity of masses equaling various percentages of 100% - 0.000453% ;
given those quantity of masses spatial relation to the central mass, and given those quantity of masses (each having their mass which has a range of comparisons between all other masses) percentage of gravity force caused;
what would the geometry of the gravity force field be, what would the reaction be?
originally posted by: Arbitrageur
[atsimg]http://files.abovetopsecret.com/images/member/48da3d162815.jpg[/atsimg]
[atsimg]http://files.abovetopsecret.com/images/member/68cbe40a92ea.gif[/atsimg]
Speaking of dumbing things down, if you get your science from TV or youtube videos instead of from a proper education you're bound to have some misconceptions and it's never as simple as the dumbed down models.
But the Heisenberg uncertainty principle doesn't prevent electrons from interacting, it only places limits on how accurately you can know the position and momentum simultaneously.
I've already seen that video and I don't remember it explaining the shape of atomic orbitals or explaining the rest of your word soup. What time index does it explain the orbitals?
originally posted by: KrzYma
the pictures of the shape of an atom are also explained in this series so take you some time and watch it
originally posted by: ImaFungi
I presume the black hole would have to be many more percentages more massive for there to not be needed dark matter theory, but even still, if the black hole was made incrementally more massive for sake of these theoretical checks and balances, is it thought that the spiral rotations and outer stars would 'make sense'?