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2001: They also will use the attacks to gain control of the few nations in the world who don’t allow Rothschild central banks and so less than one month after these attacks, US forces attackAfghanistan, one of only 7 nations in the world who don’t have a Rothschild controlled central bank.
2003: Ancient Babylon, I meanIraq, is now one of six nations left in the world who don’t have a Rothschild controlled central bank.
2005: There are now only 5 nations on the world left without a Rothschild controlled central bank: Iran; North Korea; Sudan; Cuba; and Libya.
Originally posted by Schkeptick
How do you find the list of these Rothschild banks?
Originally posted by Schkeptick
So why is it okay for all other peoples of the world to want their own nation under their own control, but not okay for Jews?
Originally posted by Schkeptick
By their own definition, a person may be a Jew by heritage or by conversion. If these "Ashkenazi" Jews converted, then they are by definition Jewish. If I converted today, I would be as Jewish as any Jew in the world.
Originally posted by Schkeptick
If there is a group of Rothschilds running the world and controlling all these things - it has NOTHING whatsoever to do with their faith or heritage, or lack thereof.
Originally posted by Schkeptick
Turning all these conspiracies into blatant bigotry just undermines your theory.
Originally posted by Schkeptick
ETA: in case you can't tell, I'm a big fan of *Respectful* Argument as a way to seek higher knowledge - on both sides. I'm not being a troll or trying to annoy you.
Originally posted by Schkeptick
How is it possible to know / prove at this time who is or isn't Ashkenazi, by this definition? To maintain Jewish ties they would have been intermarrying for hundreds of years.
How would a conspiracy like that be continued for that many generations?
Originally posted by Schkeptick
Rothschild Group claims on its website to only be involved in these countries:
Abu Dhabi Amsterdam Athens Auckland Barcelona Beijing Birmingham Brussels Budapest Bucharest Calgary Doha Dubai Frankfurt Geneva Guernsey Hanoi Hong Kong Istanbul Jakarta Johannesburg Kiev Kuala Lumpur Leeds Lisbon London Madrid Manchester Manila Melbourne Mexico City Milan Montreal Moscow Mumbai New Delhi New York Paris Prague Rome Santiago São Paulo Seoul Shanghai Singapore Sofia Stockholm Sydney Tel Aviv Tokyo Toronto Warsaw Washington Wellington Zurich
Originally posted by Cythraul
Originally posted by Schkeptick
How is it possible to know / prove at this time who is or isn't Ashkenazi, by this definition? To maintain Jewish ties they would have been intermarrying for hundreds of years.
How would a conspiracy like that be continued for that many generations?
It isn't possible, but it's also not relevant. I think you're missing the point a little - no-one is accusing ALL Jews (Ashkenazi or otherwise) of evil, only the Rothschild Dynasty and their offshoot bloodlines. This is something that CAN be established. The problem lies in the fact that the Rothschilds have set up a system whereby all accusations levelled at them are immediately referred to the ADL or local government and labelled as 'anti-Semitism'. It doesn't matter if you're only accusing a small group who happen to call themselves Jews (but aren't even Semites themselves) - you will be charged as a full-blown anti-Semite.
Genetic origins
Main article: Genetic studies on Jews
Efforts to identify the origins of Ashkenazi Jews through DNA analysis began in the 1990s. Like most DNA studies of human migration patterns, the earliest studies focused on two segments of the human genome, the Y-chromosome (passed on only by males), and the mitochondrial genome (mtDNA, passed on only by females). Both segments are unaffected by recombination. Genome-wide association studies have also been employed to yield findings relevant to genetic origins.